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August 26, 2018


I do not recall the case at the top of mind, but was there not an analogous TAX case that removed the "(1) there must be a physical place in the district;" limitation?

If the lower courts are (again) trying to create some distinction for patents that does not exist, how then would such NOT inevitably end up being tossed by the Supreme Court as improper?

(that, is - sadly - if such in any way would benefit a patent holder)

Different point, but of what relevance is "and that all of its inventors reside outside of the U.S."...?

Yet another different point, it appears that NO answer was actually given to the argument of "or if the public directly accesses the services of defendant through a location in the respective forum" - given that for internet based items, the public DIRECTLY ACCESSES in every state. The court here apparently changed the tone of this argument to be NOT the public access angle - that public access angle was written out and exchanged with a Twitter "base of operations" angle.

Another different point: from a non-legal perspective, given all of the other facts about absence of presence in Nevada, what does "VoIP-Pal.com is a Nevada corporation" even mean? SHOULD corporations be allowed to BE incorporated in states in which they will not have any "serviceable" presence? (admittedly, this is more of a corporate law question, as opposed to a patent question)

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